Are you asking - are the same books that are on sale in both the West and in countries - such as Iran - that produce 'pirated' copies of the same books (in translation) more expensive in the West because those, there, who legally purchase the original untranslated books - are having to pay more, for the said originals, in order to make up for revenue lost from illegal foreign sales of the translations??A British GM once came to Iran... After the (book) signing, WGM P... reprimanded the young man... the GM will be saddened (seeing his book printed and bined? [bound].. in Iran... ) The man (GM?) said (that) he himself is (was) aware of the fact.
Also some people (in the West?) say (-) the reason the books are more expensive in the v?est (West?) in? (is?) that they? (the publishing industry and/or authors?) get the money (that [the] people of Iran and other non-copyright compliant countries w?ould [should] pay) from us (customers?) in [the] west). Is that true?
And, if the answer to that question is - "No."
Are you implying, "Well, that's all right then. The 'piracy' makes no difference to the higher price(s) in the West. So it (piracy) 'make benefit Glorious Nation...' and the book-buying people of Iran, etc."
I.e. a win for the rest and a draw for the West??
If so, I can give you an answer (subject to your confirmation that what I have partly restated above is a fairly accurate representation of your question).